GET THE BEST ACCURATE FREE ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-RELEASE-MANAGEMENT PDF GUIDE AND PASS EXAM IN FIRST ATTEMPT

Get the Best Accurate Free ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Pdf Guide and Pass Exam in First Attempt

Get the Best Accurate Free ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Pdf Guide and Pass Exam in First Attempt

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.
Topic 2
  • Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.
Topic 3
  • AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

  • A. A 'pull' approach
  • B. Continuous delivery
  • C. A 'push' approach
  • D. Continuous integration

Answer: C

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 11
A new release manager wants to explain to the organization's service consumers the purpose of a new release management practice. What should the release manager say to the service consumers to help them realize the value of release management?

  • A. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to users to mitigate the service provider's risks.
  • B. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to enable them to perform tests.
  • C. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to reduce business losses.
  • D. The release management practice will ensure the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 12
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?

  • A. Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map
  • B. Creating a 'to be' value stream map
  • C. Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis
  • D. Identifying the workflow steps

Answer: A

Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.


NEW QUESTION # 13
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?

  • A. Level 3
  • B. Level 5
  • C. Level 4
  • D. Level 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.


NEW QUESTION # 14
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?

  • A. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
  • B. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
  • C. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
  • D. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases

Answer: A

Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 15
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